![]() ![]() Since Zechariah was definitely originally composed in Hebrew, the Catalan influence on the rendering of Zechariah's words (as found in Matthew) makes it difficult to escape the conclusion that the texts of vat. However, the translator does not use the biblical terminology for the rest of the citation indicating that either he did not know it, or that he purposefully chose to follow the Catalan rather than the Hebrew original ( ibid p. The Biblical text does not add the first person “I will smite the pastor,” but has the imperative clause “הך– smite” whereas the Catalan does have the first person “I”. However, the translator has: “אני אכה הרועה ותתפזרו הצאן” which is a direct translation from the Catalan with no reference to the original. One of the more telling examples, documented by Hames & Casanellas, is Matthew's quotation of Zechariah 13:7 68-70 here), not a preservation of an ancient Hebrew text. Vallicrossa, Cassutto, Delcor, Hames, and Casanellas all suggest these Hebrew manuscripts are translations from Catalan (see pp. But if the translator had such a source (text 1 or something close to it), translating text 2 back into Hebrew would be unnecessary. The only circumstance in which texts 1 & 3 would be highly comparable is if the translator of text 3 had an original Hebrew source to refer to as an aid to translation. If 1) a Hebrew text was translated into 2) a Catalan text, and then the Catalan text was translated back into 3) a Hebrew text, texts 1 & 3 would not be identical-translation is far too interpretative a process for this to occur. It may have been preserved in the Catalan dialect in Sepharad (Spain). The scenario proposed by the site linked in the OP is linguistically unlikely: Nevertheless, the thesis you have made between the lines, that the author may have had fragmentary ancient manuscripts and filled the rest up from a Catalan translation seems interesting and it would be worth while to analyse this in detail, above all in the Gospel according to John. I am not a scientist or specialist in this matter, so the fact that I haven't found anything in this direction does not mean that it does not exist. I didn't find a contribution that stands between the observations above concentrating on the Catalan origin and the publication of the van Rensburgs (those running ) that concentrate on passsages that do not go with Catalan, Latin or Greek. TRANSLATED FROM CATALAN: LOOKING AT A FIFTEENTH-CENTURY HEBREW VERSION OF THE GOSPELSīoth publications (from the same author, overlapping, but not identical) point out passages that show that the manuscripts are translated from Catalan, not discovering any deviations. Hames (Ben Gurion University of the Negev) Melilah: Manchester Journal of Jewish Studies (1759-1953)
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